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November 23

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Before Puberty, sex organs are not functional?

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How do sex organs function in both genders before puberty in humans? Not after Puberty. HarryOrange (talk) 07:24, 23 November 2024 (UTC)Reply

Sexual maturity is only reached during puberty. Before it is reached, the sex organs are not (or not yet fully) functional. See also Sex organ § Development and Precocious puberty.  --Lambiam 11:51, 23 November 2024 (UTC)Reply
They're functional. It's just that their functions are generally under the headings of "basic maintenance" and "not atrophying". Abductive (reasoning) 09:39, 24 November 2024 (UTC)Reply
To my understanding (which may be deficient), testicles prior to puberty are secreting some levels of androgens (including testosterone) and estrogens, which contribute to the male body's normal development, even though these levels are well below what they become during and after puberty. I imagine (perhaps wrongly) that similar considerations apply to the ovaries.
Our immediately relevant articles seem not very informative about pre-pubertal operations of the sex organs. Perhaps someone more knowlegable could take a look at them. 94.1.211.243 (talk) 09:46, 24 November 2024 (UTC)Reply
I did take a look, I always do before answering a question. Here is a representative article; The immature human ovary shows loss of abnormal follicles and increasing follicle developmental competence through childhood and adolescence. The word "competence" means that in vitro the ovary tissue does a better job of taking on adult functionality the older the girl, but in vivo such activity is suppressed. Abductive (reasoning) 10:08, 24 November 2024 (UTC)Reply
Nevertheless, if I've understood the peripheral hints I've encountered, those pre-pubertal levels of androgen and estrogen (and steroid, etc.) secretions are necessary at the time (the pre-pubertal period) for ongoing normal development, which is kinda what the OP asked about. Of course, all this is well above my pay grade. {The poster formerly known as 87.81 230.195} 94.1.211.243 (talk) 13:36, 24 November 2024 (UTC)Reply
This discussion seems to have focused on the testicles and ovaries but the penis is also a sex organ and is capable of an erection before puberty. This is mentioned in our erection article in a sort of weird way given the flow on sentence. Ejaculation however only happens after puberty. I assume there is similarly some level of function in female sex organs. As mentioned in our masturbation article it's normal in children even in infancy and may even happen in the womb and is only a concern when there are indications it may relate to sexual abuse. Nil Einne (talk) 20:46, 24 November 2024 (UTC)Reply
The penis as such is able to "ejaculate" well before puberty (somewhat dependent on definition) but because the prostata doesn't produce anything, there is nothing to ejaculate. So it's going through the motions way before the other organs are functional. 176.0.132.86 (talk) 05:20, 29 November 2024 (UTC)Reply


November 25

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Is there a cryonic company that will freeze me while I'm still alive and healthy, and reanimate me 15 years later? If I arrest the aging process for 15 years this way, could I then pass for a Gen Z?

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Could I have myself cryofrozen (without dying of another reason first) in 2025 with instructions to reanimate me in 2040 so that I could more convincingly pass for and live like someone born in the Gen Z generation?

What companies cryofreeze people who ask for it while still alive and healthy?

Or does such a cryonic plan and company exist anywhere in the world?

I wanted to be born in 2000, not the year I was actually born in. So if I get cryofrozen for enough years, I'll look as young as a Gen Z when I'm reanimated.

Lastly, Reddit's r/Cryonics subreddit's automoderator keeps glitching out because it keeps autoremoving any content of mine from there. I tried posting this question and above summary to other subreddits but their automod keeps autoremoving it too. Their persistent glitches kept bugging me enough to dust off the Wikipedian reference desk and post here again for the first time in many years. I used to be a regular on the refdesk, then moved to Reddit, and now I'm back. --2600:100A:B005:AFD5:B08A:71E6:8521:5D8E (talk) 01:48, 25 November 2024 (UTC)Reply

Short answer: No. As currently freezing a human adult, results in their death, as no resuscitation is possible. It would be some kind of murder to perform this, so only a crime syndicate would be willing. And then could you trust them for 15 years? Graeme Bartlett (talk) 01:59, 25 November 2024 (UTC)Reply
In 15 years, you'd be just as deceased, pushing up daisies, no more, pining for the fjords. So what's trust got to do with it? Clarityfiend (talk) 08:34, 25 November 2024 (UTC)Reply
At this point I feel bound to recommend that you watch Sleeper.Shantavira
Terraforming a planet around some distant star and setting up a population there sounds far easier and actually doable to me. Perhaps in the far future it'll be possible to create a new body and copy the brain fom one of those frozen blocks for it, or maybe set up an android with an artificial copied brain - but why would any people who could do that bother with anyone from this time, would it be ethical for us to try and make a Neanderthal clone? NadVolum (talk) 21:15, 25 November 2024 (UTC)Reply
By way of a reference, try 'We don't yet have the know-how to properly maintain a corpse brain': Why cryonics is a non-starter in our quest for immortality. Alansplodge (talk) 11:53, 26 November 2024 (UTC)Reply
you must understand that reanimation from cryogenic stasis is not actually possible at present
read all you can about longevity esp. power laws, best practice, established dietary / exercise ('longevity athletics / olympics') / supplementation practices,
although, best practice will vary depending on whether you are interested in youthful appearance and/or extension of what is called healthspan
it is all very possible, although you are fighting an uphill battle in america (and much is contingent on financial resources)
best of luck !!! 130.74.58.173 (talk) 16:43, 2 December 2024 (UTC)Reply

Can any insurance company make a cryonics bankruptcy insurance policy for companies that preserve bodies in cryogenic preservation vats so that even when the company goes bankrupt, their insurance policies will keep these vats running and bodies preserved?

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...So that we can continue the hope and possibility of reanimating these bodies back to life when medical science advances and finds cures to reverse whatever they died from?

This topic was also autoremoved from r/Cryonics so that's why I'm bringing it here too. Thanks in advance. --2600:100A:B005:AFD5:B08A:71E6:8521:5D8E (talk) 01:48, 25 November 2024 (UTC)Reply

An insurance policy defines the amount of money to be paid to the holder of the policy when a specified contingency occurs. If the contingency is bankruptcy and the idea is to keep the company running, the amount should be larger than the prospectively unknowable debt to preferential creditors. It should be obvious that no insurance company can offer a policy with an unlimited payout. Apart from this, even an insurance for a sufficiently large amount cannot guarantee that the company or trustee will use the money paid out for the intended purpose.  --Lambiam 02:53, 25 November 2024 (UTC)Reply
Who would be a creditor? They're all dead and have no rights. NadVolum (talk) 21:00, 25 November 2024 (UTC)Reply
Creditors of Instant Immortality (the bankrupt cryonics company, for short II) could be: (1) the tax office; (2) II's bank; (3) the company from which II hired its cryogenic equipment; (4) II's provider of liquid nitrogen; (5) II's lawyers; (6) scores of estates of frozen clients, legally presumed dead, who won a class action lawsuit against II.  --Lambiam 11:43, 26 November 2024 (UTC)Reply
Wow, is it April 1 already? ←Baseball Bugs What's up, Doc? carrots01:00, 26 November 2024 (UTC)Reply
Cryonics is such a blatant scam I don't understand how it is legal. Shantavira|feed me 09:33, 26 November 2024 (UTC)Reply
More blatant than (also legal) homeopathy? Clarityfiend (talk) 10:06, 26 November 2024 (UTC)Reply
More blatant than religion? 130.74.58.173 (talk) 16:44, 2 December 2024 (UTC)Reply
Can't be. It's a tautology. --Askedonty (talk) 16:59, 2 December 2024 (UTC)Reply

A marginally better idea might be to create a testamentary trust fund, if you could find a willing trustee. I'm not sure how far into the future you might want this to extend (do frozen corpses have a "best before" date?) but a legal expert might advise on how to extend the trust beyond the lifetime of the trustee, and what incentives might be required for another person to accept that role. Alansplodge (talk) 11:45, 26 November 2024 (UTC)Reply

Where to verify a chemical compund name synonyms?

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The ARM390 compound has multiple IDs, (some of?) which can be found at PubChem here:

https://pubchem.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/compound/9841259#section=Synonyms

There are two among them, which differ with one zero only: AR-M1000390 and AR-M100390. The difference seems too small to be just a coincidence, it looks like one must be a typo modification of the other.

Is there any way for a non-chemistry/medicine-professional to trace the origin of those specific symbols and learn whether they are actually the same, or genuinely different? --CiaPan (talk) 08:09, 25 November 2024 (UTC)Reply

PS. The motivation for publishing this question here is it's not only me in doubt – another user called for discussion at Redirect discussion: AR-M100390. The sources refer to both names, so from the Wikpedia point of view both are valid, but... Out of curiosity, I just would like to know: are they independent, truly different? CiaPan (talk)

Usually, I would trust ChemSpider to validate such synonyms and that's where I'd send a non-expert. In this particular case, Chemspider seems to prefer AR-M1000390 but one possible source of misinformation/typo is this paper, which consistently uses AR-M100390 in the text but AR-M1000390 in the citation #23, which is correct at doi:10.1016/S0024-3205(03)00489-2. Mike Turnbull (talk) 12:14, 25 November 2024 (UTC)Reply
The earliest use of the name AR-M1000390 seems to be in a PhD thesis from 2003.[1] The same name was used in a 2003 journal article in Life Sciences describing the results of this PhD thesis.[2] The substance was synthesized by researchers from AstraZeneca R&D; their paper describing the design, synthesis, and pharmacological evaluation of the drug, published in 2000, does not use this name, but only the systemic name N,N-diethyl-4-(phenylpiperidin-4-ylidenemethyl)benzamide.[3] Plausibly, the "AR" bit is short for "AstraZeneca R&D" and the whole was originally a code for internal use in the AstraZeneca lab. Subsequently:
  • AR-M1000390 was deposited on 2016-02-05; the source was the IUPHAR/BPS Guide to PHARMACOLOGY,[4] which references the 2003 Life Sciences article.[5]
  • The synonym ar-m100390 was deposited on 2017-09-13 by Springer Nature.[6]
  • Yet another synonym: AR-M 1000390, deposited on 2024-11-14 by a chemical vendor.[7]
--Lambiam 20:02, 25 November 2024 (UTC)Reply
Thank you both, Mike Turnbull and Lambiam, for detailed info.   CiaPan (talk) 07:24, 26 November 2024 (UTC)Reply

November 27

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Right whales and Left whales

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Why are there right whales, but not left whales? Someone who's wrong on the internet (talk) 09:05, 27 November 2024 (UTC)Reply

Perhaps there's a naming dispute in the whale courts over brand names, a left vs wrong case. Sean.hoyland (talk) 09:32, 27 November 2024 (UTC)Reply
You're thinking of the Narwhal. ←Baseball Bugs What's up, Doc? carrots10:00, 27 November 2024 (UTC)Reply
Not right versus left, but right versus wrong. This was the right species to catch. PiusImpavidus (talk) 10:10, 27 November 2024 (UTC)Reply
Th answer is in the article you linked: Right_whale#Naming. Shantavira|feed me 11:27, 27 November 2024 (UTC)Reply
If a member of a group of whales manages to beach itself, and the others swim on, then the one on the beach would be a left whale. ←Baseball Bugs What's up, Doc? carrots15:11, 27 November 2024 (UTC)Reply
What is a wrong whale exactly? Someone who's wrong on the internet (talk) 23:19, 27 November 2024 (UTC)Reply
The ones that don't fit the definition given in the article. ←Baseball Bugs What's up, Doc? carrots23:42, 27 November 2024 (UTC)Reply
There's also this:[8]Baseball Bugs What's up, Doc? carrots23:45, 27 November 2024 (UTC)Reply
Maybe Gregory and Syme got to them. Iapetus (talk) 12:01, 28 November 2024 (UTC)Reply

Lawson Criterion: calculating energy density W

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Lawson Criterion

The article states:

Ion density then equals electron density and the energy density of both electrons and ions together is given by

 

where   is the temperature in electronvolt (eV) and   is the particle density.

However, there is no clear explanation given as to why the energy density equals 3nT, rather than 2nT or just nT. If the electrons and ions are in equal parts within the plasma, shouldn't it equal 2nT?

Is there any source that clears this up? — Preceding unsigned comment added by Shouldputsomethinginterestinghere (talkcontribs) 11:28, 27 November 2024 (UTC) Shouldputsomethinginterestinghere (talk) 11:27, 27 November 2024 (UTC)Reply

The energy density of a monoatomic gas is  . Both electrons and ions can be considered monoatomic gases, so the total energy density is double of that value. Ruslik_Zero 20:56, 27 November 2024 (UTC)Reply
Depends on what n is precisely. If n is the ion density (equal to the electron density), then   is correct. If taken literally as "particle density" (i.e. ions and electrons combined), then it should still be  . I assume that the former is meant, but the formulation seems ambiguous. --Wrongfilter (talk) 21:39, 27 November 2024 (UTC)Reply

stage 4 breast cancer

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I'm not seeking medical advice, but stage 4 cancer means you're gonna die from it imminently, can someone confirm? Or is it wait, what?? Maybe I'm confused. Thanks. 2601:644:8581:75B0:0:0:0:6B00 (talk) 22:22, 27 November 2024 (UTC)Reply

  • According to breast cancer classification, Stage IV means the cancer has metastasized, that is, tumors that have "broken off" of the original tumor have appeared elsewhere in the body. "Metastatic breast cancer has a less favorable prognosis." Abductive (reasoning) 06:52, 28 November 2024 (UTC)Reply
  • "While there is no cure for metastatic breast cancer, it is possible to control it with treatment for a number of years. The cancer can also go into remission."[9] So "imminently" is not generally correct.  --Lambiam 15:17, 28 November 2024 (UTC)Reply

November 28

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Are there any volatile gold compounds?

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Title. Let's say "boiling point under 500°C" counts (as long as it actually boils and doesn't decompose). :) Double sharp (talk) 03:11, 28 November 2024 (UTC)Reply

Gold(III) fluoride apparently undergoes "sublimation above 300 °C". Tracing the dewiki article's data suggests this comes from CRC 10th ed. doi:10.1016/0022-328X(87)80355-8 is a lead article about volatile gold compounds, but these (and others I found) are generally about transferring as a vapor for CVD, nanoparticle formation, or other short-timeframe processes, so probably low pressure and maybe not highly stable in the vapor phase. DMacks (talk) 03:58, 28 November 2024 (UTC)Reply
The compound [Me2AuOSiMe3]2 sublimes at 40 °C (0.001 mmHg) without decomposition. (doi:10.1002/anie.196706831) --Leiem (talk) 04:24, 28 November 2024 (UTC)Reply

Closure, does it exist in physics?

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In mathematics, closures are pretty common, e.g. a sum of positive/negative numbers is a positive/negative sum - respectively, and a space of two/three dimensional bodies is a two/three dimensional space - respectively, and so forth.

I wonder if closures also exist in physics, i.e. when the closed properties are physical rather than mathematical, i.e. I'm not interested in applying mathematical properties - like a sum or a space - in physics: e.g. when we say that "a sum of two electric forces is an electric force": It's a bad example for closures in physics, because a "sum" is a methematical property, whereas I'm only interested in purely physical examples.

The above-mentioned example for closures in physics is bad also for another reason: Whereas there is a concrete difference between an electric field and a magnetic field (e.g. by how they influence a stationary body), there is no concrete difference between an electric force and a magnetic force: They influence a given body by the same way, e.g. if their value is 1 kg N they will accelerate a given body by the same acceleration, so the only difference (if at all) between an electric force and a magnetic force and a gravitaional force is "historical", i.e. it only tells us whether the source of that force, was an electric field or a magnetic field or a gravitational field.

HOTmag (talk) 08:35, 28 November 2024 (UTC)Reply

1 kg is the unit of mass and not of force for which physicists have another unit Newton (the force to accelerate 1 kg at 1 m/s2) and your Greengrocer uses a scale that displays W(kg)=mg. Mathematical Addition (or summation), whether of scalar or vector quantities, is defined in abstract symbols. Those symbols may represent any physically real quantities and the summation result is equally real. That is no set-limited exercise or example-setting in Set theory and physical science is well enough aware that that there can be four (not just 3) fundamental forces viz. gravity, electromagnetism, weak interaction and strong interaction that act in combination and cease to be explicitly separable in the result. Philvoids (talk) 13:40, 28 November 2024 (UTC)Reply
Yes, I really meant Newton (sometimes people tend to replace weight by mass, but this mistake is so widespread - mainly in daily life, that it should be forgiven when readers understand what the speaker meant). Additionally I didn't want to mention the other forces becuase they are not useful in daily life.
As for your main response, I didn't fully understand the bottom lime: Do you eventually claim that there don't exist purley physical closures (although there are purely mathematical closures)? HOTmag (talk) 14:08, 28 November 2024 (UTC)Reply

Are Symmetry (physics) and Conservation law what you're after?

Not necessarily, but could you give a concrete example? HOTmag (talk) 14:27, 28 November 2024 (UTC)Reply
In mathematics, a closure is always the closure if a set. The set of positive numbers is closed under addition. The concept of closure requires the notion of an operation such as addition that can be performed on elements of the set. What is closed is not a property but a set.  --Lambiam 15:08, 28 November 2024 (UTC)Reply
A property is usually interpreted as a set. E.g. the property "Asian" is the set of all Asian objects, and when we say that a given object is Asian we only mean that it belongs to that set.
Here is a surprising example of closure: "a space of two/three dimensional objects is a two/three dimensional space - respectively". It really points at a closure because: on one hand, the operation is "to collect objects in a space": the result of this operation is the space in which those object are collected. On the other hand, the property is "two/three dimensional" (choose one option): this property is represented by the set of all two/three dimensional objects (respectively).
My original question was, if there was any physical property (i.e. a set of physical objects sharing an indentical physical property), closed under a physical operation. HOTmag (talk) 17:59, 28 November 2024 (UTC)Reply
Do you mean, in lay terms, 'is there any physical property of a physical object that can never be changed?' (I assume by a physical process – I don't think changing the host's accident by transubstantiation counts.)
I'd guess that Dark matter can't be changed into Baryonic matter and vice versa, but I might well be wrong. {The poster formerly known as 87.81.230.195} 94.1.211.243 (talk) 10:01, 29 November 2024 (UTC)Reply

Active galaxys

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What are active galaxies? NoBrainFound (talk) 17:29, 28 November 2024 (UTC)Reply

See Active galactic nucleus, first paragraph. Perhaps there should be a redirect for this topic. -- Verbarson  talkedits 18:11, 28 November 2024 (UTC)Reply
Oh. There is one: Active galaxy. It's a bit annoying that the search bar does the redirect invisibly. -- Verbarson  talkedits 19:10, 28 November 2024 (UTC)Reply

November 29

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Where can I find counterintuitive phenomenons list in Science?

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Examples:

Asymptotic freedom - We'd normally expect forces to increase as objects get closer, but surprisingly, the strong nuclear force between quarks decreases as they get closer together.

Mpemba effect - The phenomenon where hot water can sometimes cool and freeze faster than cold water

Ultraviolet catastrophe

Pioneer anomaly HarryOrange (talk) 16:19, 29 November 2024 (UTC)Reply

The ultraviolet catastrophe is not actually a phenomenon (that's the point). 19th-century classical physics theories predicted it should happen and, because it doesn't, were superceded by improved, quantum theories. {The poster formerly known as 87.81.230.195} 94.1.211.243 (talk) 18:45, 29 November 2024 (UTC)Reply
There are some examples at List_of_paradoxes#Physics AndrewWTaylor (talk) 19:12, 29 November 2024 (UTC)Reply
A list of counterintuitive phenomena can never be universally applicable because "intuitive believability" i.e. credibility is subjective and depends on a person's experience and education, that can both change. It is counterintuitive (for some) that the Earth can be spherical and yet have oceans that do not immediately drain off down the sides. It is incredible that my car registration number has the same digits as the winning lottery ticket of someone who knew a friend of a cousin of mine who lives in a different country because what are the infinitesimal chances of that happening? If apes can evolve into humans as we are told, why are there still apes around? Philvoids (talk) 16:54, 30 November 2024 (UTC)Reply
In medical school, a lot of facts you have to learn by rote, since there is no overarching theory from which you can rationally deduce those facts. tgeorgescu (talk) 18:21, 30 November 2024 (UTC)Reply

November 30

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Displacement receiver v. transducer v. sensor

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I'm working on the Displacement receiver page, which formerly had no citations, and the going is difficult because few things actually talk about displacement "receivers" rather than sensors/transducers/etc.. Does anyone know if these three terms refer to the same thing? The initial article talked about a carbon microphone as a displacement receiver because it responds to displacement internally, although what it measures is sound waves, whereas this book says displacement transducers measure the distance between a sensor and a target, and this one says they measure movement and the "occurence of a reference position", whatever that means. It doesn't seem like carbon microphones fit those definitions. But I've also seen e.g. this conference paper use "displacement receiver" to refer to a contact sensor measuring its change in distance from a concrete block to measure stress waves, which is an application actually measuring distance. The article defines it as "a device that responds to or is sensitive to directed distance", which also matches the concrete definition.

Does anyone know if a carbon microphone is really a displacement receiver? And is a displacement transducer the same as a displacement sensor? Mrfoogles (talk) 19:56, 30 November 2024 (UTC)Reply

The intended useful function of a Microphone is to sense incoming sound and deliver a proportional electric signal. As Sound is a varying pressure wave, some varying displacement occurs inside the microphone. However, a microphone is not normally intended or calibrated to measure its internal displacements. They are microscopic movements in the case* of carbon granules under pressure in a carbon microphone. I think it is as unreal (overparticularity) to call a Microphone, whether carbon or any other type, a displacement receiver as it is to call my Eardrum a Barometer. In general a Transducer converts energy from one form to another and receiving input is the first part and not the whole of its action. A Sensor must provide actual useful information about a specific physical phenomenon. * pun on "case" Philvoids (talk) 12:41, 4 December 2024 (UTC)Reply

Smelly plasterboard

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This BBC News article about a smelly landfill site quotes a chemist as saying "One of the materials that is particularly bad for producing odours and awful emissions is plasterboard". I thought that plasterboard was a fairly inert substance. Why would it cause bad odours in landfill? (I assume that this is not faulty plasterboard suffering from the in-use 'emission of sulfurous gases' mentioned in the WP article.) -- Verbarson  talkedits 21:07, 30 November 2024 (UTC)Reply

When mixed with biodegradable wastes like manure and sewage, gypsum can produce hydrogen sulphide gas, which is odorous and toxic, and a threat to public health.
Plasterboard Disposal: What You Need to Know
Perhaps somebody who understands the chemistry could add something to our article? Alansplodge (talk) 22:35, 30 November 2024 (UTC)Reply
Well, gypsum is CaSO4·2H2O, which has a significant amount of sulfur and hydrogen in it, and hydrogen sulphide is just HS -- I imagine it's not too hard for a chemical reaction to release hydrogen sulphide gas and therefore as they occur they do. Probably there's a paper somewhere that goes over the various reactions that happen. Mrfoogles (talk) 01:07, 1 December 2024 (UTC)Reply
Hydrogen sulfide (however you like to spell it:) is H2S. According to our article about that chemical, it arises from gypsum by the action of sulfate-reducing microorganisms that are active "moist, warm, anaerobic conditions of buried waste that contains a high source of carbon". 11:48, 1 December 2024 (UTC) DMacks (talk)

1990s Cathode-ray TV questions.

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In the late '90s / early 2000s I remember as a kid looking closeup to the TV screen. For The Simpsons, their yellow skin was red green red green lights next to each other to make yellow. You can't do this with the modern TVs now anymore, but what did cathode-ray TVs use for pink? Would it be dim red by itself, or all 3 colors? How do they make brown? And if Cathode rays can do red green red green, can they do for example, red red green, red red green? Thanks. 2603:8001:5103:AF08:2477:8D7F:1D4B:D0 (talk) 22:41, 30 November 2024 (UTC).Reply

Current screens also describe colors mostly in RGB (red,green,blue) format, although I don't know the details of how they display it (see LCD for one method) -- this webpage lists some color codes for various shades of pink. It looks like they use full red, plus moderate levels of green and blue. Sort of like red + white. Mrfoogles (talk) 01:03, 1 December 2024 (UTC)Reply
OLED displays use a variety of methods; see OLED § Color patterning technologies.  --Lambiam 03:08, 1 December 2024 (UTC)Reply
Brown is basically a darker shade of orange. Whether this is perceived as brown depends strongly on the context. There is no such thing as a brown light; only surfaces of objects can appear brown.  --Lambiam 03:18, 1 December 2024 (UTC)Reply
In photochemistry/photophysics, we can use dyes to make chemicals fluoresce non-spectral colors. Whether or not there is a brown dye is another question. But I believe pink dyes are known. 2603:8001:5103:AF08:2477:8D7F:1D4B:D0 (talk) 05:45, 1 December 2024 (UTC).Reply
In straightforward terms, most human eyes have three color receptors — red, green and blue. The eye can be tricked into seeing any color of light by the right proportions of those three pure colors. The devil is in the details. Doug butler (talk) 06:41, 1 December 2024 (UTC)Reply
It works out mathematically, but one of those details with a devil is that for some colour mixes you may need a negative amount of one of the primary colours – which is physically impossible. That's why some screens use a fourth colour in the mix. PiusImpavidus (talk) 10:35, 1 December 2024 (UTC)Reply
Please see Gamut before declaring devilry. Philvoids (talk) 14:37, 1 December 2024 (UTC)Reply
The colours are still red, green and blue, mixed in varying proportions. The exact hue may vary a bit and some screens add a fourth colour. The dots are pretty small though (maybe smaller than before; resolution has increased, but so have screen sizes) and you may no longer be able to watch them from as close as when you were a kid. Try a magnifying glass. PiusImpavidus (talk) 10:23, 1 December 2024 (UTC)Reply
You're maybe thinking of printing, where the fourth color is black. Way off topic. The really cool thing about color tubes is how the manufacturer deposits the bunches of three phosphors on the inside of the glass screen. The (iron) shadow mask, with its millions of holes, is spaced a few mm back. Spray guns for each color, located where the electron guns will be located in the final manufacturing stage, blast their phosphors so a trio of dots get through each hole in the mask. Electrons from each gun that get through the mask will hit its respective phosphor. Costly, wasteful and inefficient but it worked. Doug butler (talk) 17:07, 1 December 2024 (UTC)Reply
I remember a TV manufacturer telling they added yellow to the standard blue-green-red to be able to make more intense yellows. It makes sense, as the alternative would be driving the blue component to negative.
Professional printers, like those printing food packaging, often use around 6 colours, chosen specifically for the task. PiusImpavidus (talk) 09:32, 2 December 2024 (UTC)Reply
You might be interested in Additive color and the RGB color model. -- Avocado (talk) 18:58, 4 December 2024 (UTC)Reply

December 1

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Fusion power critics

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I've stumbled upon a few freak Russian critics in the internet who still allege that fusion power is principally impossible. Perhaps the most notorious seems to be Soviet-era physicist Igor Ostretsov, who published an article in a Russian scientific journal, "On the Lawson Criterion in Thermonuclear Research". Since Ostretsov's criticism is too technical for me, I started to wonder how much weight does it carry, if any. Ostretsov writes in particular:

"It is perfectly clear to every competent physicist that thermonuclear plasma, i.e. plasma at temperatures at which a thermonuclear reaction occurs, cannot be transparent. At thermonuclear temperatures, most of the energy is concentrated in radiation. In the article, I cited Zeldovich on this subject: “In complete thermal equilibrium, a significant portion of the energy is converted into radiation; this circumstance limits the equilibrium average energy of charged particles to a threshold of 5–15 keV, which is completely insufficient for a fast nuclear reaction. A slow nuclear reaction of light elements at an average energy of about 10 keV is practically impossible because the removal of energy by radiation during a slow reaction will lead to a rapid drop in temperature and a complete cessation of the reaction.” If the engineers of thermonuclear fusion in magnetic traps "secretly" assume not a thermonuclear reaction, but the synthesis of hydrogen isotopes in high-energy beams, then this is how the problem should be formulated and consider its "efficiency" as extremely ineffective. The Lawson criterion has nothing to do with that problem, since it was obtained for the Maxwellian distribution of particles by velocity, which is shown in my article".

In a letter to physicist Valery Rubakov Ostretsov further asserts that

1. The Lawson criterion was obtained for the Maxwellian distribution of particles by velocity, which is established as a result of dissipative processes (collisions). 2. As shown in my article, the particle velocity distribution function in magnetic "thermonuclear" traps is determined only by external constant and variable fields, and therefore is not Maxwellian. Due to points 1 and 2, the Lawson criterion has no relation to modern "thermonuclear" research.

Ostretsov also claims that the "during thermonuclear fusion reactions, high-energy neutrons constantly fly into the inner walls of tokamak" and "it's difficult to withstand such bombardment, while a thermonuclear reactor must operate for many years". Is anything of it true? Brandmeistertalk 16:57, 1 December 2024 (UTC)Reply

Check who cites the article and see what they say. Abductive (reasoning) 19:23, 1 December 2024 (UTC)Reply
There is an article about him in Russian Wikipedia. Based on it, he looks like some kind of freak. So, I think that his opinions can be safely ignored. Ruslik_Zero 20:40, 1 December 2024 (UTC)Reply
Plasma confinement is a primary issue in the design of fusion reactors. If the plasma is insufficiently confined, which could happen in a badly designed reactor, but also due to a malfunction, the inner walls will briefly be bombarded by high-energy neutrons. But insufficient confinement also means that the fusion process stops. Of course there will always be some stray neutrons, however excellent the confinement may be. Whether the damage they inflict significantly limits the lifetime of a reactor cannot be predicted without a detailed study of the specific design of a given reactor, but this is not an issue that the designers are somehow unaware of.  --Lambiam 15:27, 3 December 2024 (UTC)Reply
Neutrons, being electrically neutral particles, are not confined by magnetic field. They will just freely leave the reactor's volume. So, 17.6 MeV neutrons will constantly bombard the walls of the reactor. This is a serious problem but it is thought to be solvable. Ruslik_Zero 20:28, 4 December 2024 (UTC)Reply

December 2

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Velocity and acceleration in special relativity

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I was thinking that acceleration can always cause time dilation (clocks tick slower) in special relativity but when I tried to imagine the following, I got confused.

Imagine 3 frames A, B, C such that frame A is our ancestors stationary frame, B is an intermediate frame with velocity v1 relative to A, and C is our stationary frame after our ancestors traveled to it with a precise clock. Frame C has a relative velocity v2>v1 (all are in the x direction, in empty space without gravitational effects for simplicity).

We were born in Frame C without knowing anything about our ancestors journey and we decided to visit Frame A. (Accelerating first to frame B then decelerating to frame A). In this case how come we will have another time dilation (additional slow ticking in clock) while we were just travelling back to the original (supposedly stationary frame)?

We are supposed to assume that we were stationary in frame C without knowing the truth, and so we will assume that we will have time dilation during our journey from C to A not the reverse (and if I am right then even our ancestors should not had been confident that they had time dilation unless they witnessed it). I hope you can explain where I got wrong.Almuhammedi (talk) 20:05, 2 December 2024 (UTC)Reply

The essence of the theory of relativity is that notions such as velocity are only meaningful relative to the frame of reference of an observer. Observers using different frames will measure different values. This is not a matter of being right or wrong. It is meaningless to say that an observer is stationary in their frame of reference "without knowing the truth". They are stationary by definition. Time dilation of a moving clock can only be observed from a frame of reference relative to which the clock is moving. For an observer holding the clock, the clock is not moving, so they will not themselves observe time dilation during their journey. Only outside observers can observe this.  --Lambiam 01:40, 3 December 2024 (UTC)Reply
I introduced the 3 frames to simulate what happens to an atomic clock on a traveling plane.
Of course there is a reference relatively (stationary clock) that is supposed to show the difference.
In this case assume that our ancestors traveled with 2 atomic clocks x, y to frame C but we used only one of their clocks, x to travel to frame A and then returned back with it to frame C.
From our perspective, we considered the travelling clock (x) as the accelerated clock (as well as us) which should suffer time dilation after returning to our frame C.
However, to an external observer relatively stationary to frame A, who witnessed our ancestors travel he will understand that Clock x only reduced its speed when traveled to its original frame A and then returned to frame C which means it suffered temporary less time dilation than clock y.Almuhammedi (talk) 06:50, 3 December 2024 (UTC)Reply
So there are two clocks at C that show the same time. One clock, y, remains at rest at C. The other clock, x, is moved from C to A and back to C. Then, on return, x will be running behind y. What happened before x's journey from C to A and back is not relevant.  --Lambiam 15:14, 3 December 2024 (UTC)Reply
What makes you so sure?
Just return both clocks to their original frame A and compare the results with a third stationary clock in frame A. I think you will see the opposite of what you you've said. Almuhammedi (talk) 16:50, 3 December 2024 (UTC)Reply
I may have some confusion between acceleration and deceleration here which caused my wrong conclusion.Almuhammedi (talk) 17:52, 3 December 2024 (UTC)Reply
I suggest that you read our article on the twin paradox. BTW, I think that the (sourced) statement that "[t]here is still debate as to the resolution of the twin paradox" is misleading. The twin paradox is only paradoxical in the sense that it is a counterintuitive effect predicted by the laws of both special and general relativity. The issue is that the explanations commonly provided – other than "this is what the laws tell us; do the maths yourselves" – are ad hoc explanations for special cases and do not cover all conceivable scenarios exhibiting the counterintuitive effect.  --Lambiam 08:54, 4 December 2024 (UTC)Reply

Snow questions

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Two questions related to snow that I have wondered in recent times, not homework.

  1. Why do most European countries lack snowfall data in their weather observations? Without data, snowfall cannot be specified since snowfall is not same as change of snow depth from one day to next.
  2. Can Lake Geneva, Lake Constance and Balaton ever produce lake-effect snow? --40bus (talk) 21:58, 2 December 2024 (UTC)Reply
@40bus 1. Presumably because in a temperate climate it's almost impossible to measure. What falls as snow on higher ground (which may or may not settle as snow) may fall as sleet or rain on lower ground, or it will turn to water or ice in the rain-gauge. Shantavira|feed me 10:01, 3 December 2024 (UTC)Reply
But US, Canada and Japan have continental climate (at least in some areas), so why then they measure? And is snowfall deducible from precipitation value so that 5 mm of precipitation equals 5 cm of snowfall? --40bus (talk) 10:54, 3 December 2024 (UTC)Reply
No, not accurately. Snow comes in many different consistencies and levels of moisture, from tiny dry flakes to huge wet masses that fall as almost pre-made snowballs. Our (Canada) weather forecasts include estimates for amounts of snow to land, but they're hilariously inaccurate for the simple reason that snow, unlike liquid water, can pile up and drift. We had a dumping of snow this past weekend and the thickness of snow on one varied quite a bit just across the width of my driveway. So, should the record show the 15 cm in my front yard, the 10 cm in my driveway or the 8 cm in my neighbour's driveway? Depending on the type of snow falling, that ratio would change as well. Matt Deres (talk) 18:15, 3 December 2024 (UTC)Reply
"Hilariously inaccurate" seems a gross exaggeration to me. The measurement should indicate the average depth of new snow over an area large enough that the variations between your front yard, your driveway, and the next driveway are irrelevant. --142.112.149.206 (talk) 09:17, 4 December 2024 (UTC)Reply
Spoken like someone unfamiliar with snow. It's not really a knock on the forecasters; it's just the nature of the material. To measure rainfall, it's not so complicated: rain may get blown about, but it typically only lands once. Not so with snow. It lands, gets picked up, lands, gets picked, and so on. If you picked a spot in your yard to measure, you'd find the level going up and down as the day transpired. So, from 6pm to midnight you'd get 10 cm of accumulation, then from midnight to 6am you'd get -3 cm of accumulation. Rain also doesn't "pile up" in areas. It lands unevenly, of course, but that hardly matters because it drains and gets absorbed. Snow piles up in chaotic ways, depending on the wind, the nature of the snow, and the terrain. Some of the worst whiteout conditions occur when there's no precipitation at all. Matt Deres (talk) 20:21, 4 December 2024 (UTC)Reply
True, but irrelevant to reporting or predicting the amount of snow that falls. Which I was shoveling today, by the way. You accuse the forecast of inaccuracy because it does not report what you want it to, that's all. --142.112.149.206 (talk) 06:23, 5 December 2024 (UTC)Reply
I'm not accusing them of anything; just reporting the plain fact that there's no accurate way of measuring it. If we could easily see accumulations of rain, we'd recognize that they too are broad estimates. Snow is worse, as I've detailed above. We just don't have a methodology for measuring snowfall that accounts for the fact that the amount that came out of the clouds bears little resemblance to what builds up on the ground. Matt Deres (talk) 16:11, 6 December 2024 (UTC)Reply
The Dutch weather office collects hourly snowfall data at some (not all) staffed weather stations, most of them at airfields, but apparently not at the more common unstaffed weather stations or the even more common precipitation stations. Maybe it's hard to measure automatically.
Snow can fall in temperatures slightly above freezing, rain can fall slightly below freezing, so the combination of precipitation and frost doesn't tell you about snow. Usually the snow melts within hours. On most days with frost, it only freezes part of the day; we used get about 50 freeze-thaw cycles per year in the east of the country, fewer along the sea, but I think that has halved in recent years. PiusImpavidus (talk) 14:54, 3 December 2024 (UTC)Reply
Re your question 2 - According to our article that you linked above "a fetch of at least 100 km (60 mi) is required to produce lake-effect precipitation". Lake Geneva, the largest lake in Europe, is only 95 km (59 mi) along its longest side (it's crescent-shaped, so the longest straight line would be somewhat shorter), so it seems unlikely (FYI: "fetch" is the distance that an air mass travels over a body of water). Alansplodge (talk) 21:15, 4 December 2024 (UTC)Reply
What's more, any lake effect would be overwhelmed by the effect of the surrounding mountains. This would also be the case for Lake Constance. Lake Balaton has no surrounding mountains, but is only 75 km long and so shallow that it can cool quickly, reducing the lake effect. There are several larger lakes in the north-east of Europe (Vänern, Vättern, Ladoga, Onega).
BTW, interesting etymology. Lake Geneva, a name appearing only in the 16th century, is named after the English exonym for the city of Genève, derived from Latin Genava and originally Celtic Genawa (compare the Italian city of Genova). The older local name of the lake is Léman, from a (Celtic?) word for lake, or pleonastically Lac Léman (already Lacus Lemanus in Roman times). Lake Constance, a name in use since the 15th century, is named after the German city of Konstanz, in English known by its French exonym Constance, derived from Latin Constantia, probably after emperor Constantius. Locally, the lake is since the 6th century known as something like Bodensee. Names from Roman times are known, but no longer in use. PiusImpavidus (talk) 11:22, 5 December 2024 (UTC)Reply

December 3

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How long is this problem in molecular biology?

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In 2016, DeepMind turned its artificial intelligence to protein folding, a long-standing problem in molecular biology.

How long is this problem in molecular biology? Source HarryOrange (talk) 10:20, 3 December 2024 (UTC)Reply

Even before the process of protein biosynthesis was discovered, it was known that small changes in the amino acid sequence could lead to major changes in protein structure. How the amino acid sequence determined the protein structure was an open question, but at the time one with no practical relevance, initially drawing little theoretical interest. That changed in 1969 when Cyrus Levinthal published the paper that gave rise to the term Levinthal's paradox. With the possibility to edit genes and synthesize proteins in the lab, it has now also become a problem of high practical relevance, but 1969 is a good starting date for the standing of the problem.  --Lambiam 15:05, 3 December 2024 (UTC)Reply
I just came across this YouTube video: "How AI Cracked the Protein Folding Code and Won a Nobel Prize". It also gives the history of the problem.  --Lambiam 09:20, 6 December 2024 (UTC)Reply


December 5

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Birds with white cheeks

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What is the evolutionary advantage - or purpose - of white "cheeks" on these disparate birds? Andy Mabbett (Pigsonthewing); Talk to Andy; Andy's edits 14:54, 5 December 2024 (UTC)Reply

In great tits, the immaculateness of the black border of white cheek patches predicted social status and reproductive success, but there was no clear evidence that it played a role in mate choice (Ferns and Hinsley 2004).
Bird Coloration, Volume 2 (p. 186)
Alansplodge (talk) 15:47, 5 December 2024 (UTC)Reply
Here's recent a review article about what's known about the genetics of bird color patterning. We know a lot less about this topic than about the genetics of patterning in insect wings. It strikes me that all birds follow that same general pattern scheme, with only the colors varying. So in a bird that is all one color, the scheme is there, but not apparent. As for the face, there are many selection pressures that could be occurring–or that might have occurred in the past–to be tested. First, if the pattern is found only in males, there's a good chance it is sexually selected (some trait is getting sexually selected for, but the face color might just be genetically or developmentally tied to it and just along for the ride). In some species, fights between males drive selection, and drawing one's opponents to peck somewhere other than the eyes would be strongly selected for. If female choice is strong, then costly-to-maintain signals are selected for. But there is also selection for confusing predators (such as about the size and position of the eyes), and for confusing prey. Finally, the feathers near the beak get a lot more wear and tear, so need to get replaced more often. Skipping adding color might make this process faster and/or cheaper. All this is guesswork on my part so make of it what you will. Abductive (reasoning) 19:09, 5 December 2024 (UTC)Reply

Time dilation

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I can't seem to get a straight answer: How many parts per trillion between Earth's most time travelly places+where are they? (1 answer for all points a "stationary" non-"antigraviting" (i.e. helicopter/airship) human could be that exist now (i.e. Mammoth Cave/the Chunnel/2 WTC's temporary roof but not the much higher place the permanent roof's planned to be or 10ft below the deepest ice dig a human could put their body. Humans could theoretically go 10ft lower but not as is), 1 answer for if under liquids also doesn't count Mariana Trench=sea level)

Some ppl say everywhere on an equipotential surface has the same speed of time from the 2 dilations canceling out. So Everest+Mariana should be extremest? Or the Kidd Creek Mine if under liquids doesn't count. I haven't been able to reproduce cancellation with the formulae or calculators though. Some gravitational dilation calculators want distance to center which is NOT geopotential (Chimborazo's furthest, Arctic seabed closest, or North Pole if has to touch air), some want g-force???. It's not g-force unless that calculator only works for the surfaces of spheres. Earth's gravitational dilation's strongest at the base of the gravity well where you'd be weightless. Google AI dumbass can be made to say both ellipsoid+geoid for the equal dilation surfaces. Some human who might know says it's the geoid. Some probably different human I don't remember says it's only equipotential on one of rotating vs inertial reference frame. How the hell can it depend on reference frame? Clocks can't both be later than each other when they reunite (very slowly to infintesimalize kinematic dilation from the trip). Some clock pair has to be most disparate when they reunite. Maybe it can still depend in some way without violating this logic? Presumably Cayambe's the place with the most kinematic time dilation? Furthest point of Earth's surface from the axis. Presumably axis points avoid more kinematic time dilation than any other points of the planet? Sagittarian Milky Way (talk) 00:20, 6 December 2024 (UTC)Reply

Although the Earth can be considered a rotating sphere, I think the effect of its rotation on gravitational time dilation is small. Using the formula at Gravitational time dilation § Outside a non-rotating sphere, I compute that the fractional difference is about 1.1 × 10−16 per metre height difference (above sea level). The fractional difference of time dilation by the velocity difference between the poles and the equator is about 1.2 × 10−12, so this will beat gravitational time dilation.  --Lambiam 02:41, 6 December 2024 (UTC)Reply

How is Rainbow considered as application ?

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How is Rainbow considered as application ? Source

I believe Rainbow is just a Rainbow, not a something to use. HarryOrange (talk) 22:42, 5 December 2024 (UTC)Reply

The Okapi Framework has an app named "Rainbow", which we describe by, "Rainbow — a toolbox to launch a large variety of localization tasks." (Other than this I know nothing about Okapi and its app.)  --Lambiam 01:48, 6 December 2024 (UTC)Reply
The link to the article about rainbows has been in the "applications" section from the start, in this edit, where the applications listed were Rainbow, Cosmic microwave radiation, Laser, and Laser fusion. The first two of those are phenomena, not technologies, so it's certainly unclear how to apply equations to them - with what end in mind? Subsequently Radio wave, Gravitational lens, and Black-body radiation joined the list. Although radio waves are phenomena there are many technological things we might seek to do with them, and in the course of trying to make things work we might need numbers that come from an equation. In other cases the application might simply be to obtain numbers, to study a phenomenon like radiation. But I agree, I can't imagine in what way we could even investigate a rainbow with these equations, and so I don't understand how it's an "application". I think it might be a reference to this Feynman lecture. Near the bottom is a discussion of rainbows:

“While I’m on this subject I want to talk about whether it will ever be possible to imagine beauty that we can’t see. It is an interesting question. When we look at a rainbow, it looks beautiful to us. Everybody says, “Ooh, a rainbow.” (You see how scientific I am. I am afraid to say something is beautiful unless I have an experimental way of defining it.) But how would we describe a rainbow if we were blind? We are blind when we measure the infrared reflection coefficient of sodium chloride, or ...”

Then

“On the other hand, even if we cannot see beauty in particular measured results, we can already claim to see a certain beauty in the equations which describe general physical laws. For example, in the wave equation (20.9), there’s something nice about the regularity of the appearance of the x, the y, the z, and the t. And this nice symmetry in appearance of the x, y, z, and t suggests to the mind still a greater beauty which has to do with the four dimensions, the possibility that space has four-dimensional symmetry, the possibility of analyzing that and the developments of the special theory of relativity. So there is plenty of intellectual beauty associated with the equations.”

So, OK. But it's tenuous, and would be better removed or explained.  Card Zero  (talk) 05:15, 6 December 2024 (UTC)Reply
The disambiguation page for Rainbow treats the various uses of the word equitably without over indulgence in any isolated usage such as the artistic to the unfair extent of shunning the physical reality that the electromagnetic wave understanding of light is the physicist's most applicable tool and that for this its equations are fundamental. Philvoids (talk) 11:47, 6 December 2024 (UTC)Reply
OK? But this question is about Electromagnetic_wave_equation#Applications (which is easily missed, since it's hidden under the word "source"). Should that really list "rainbow" as an "application"?  Card Zero  (talk) 12:37, 6 December 2024 (UTC)Reply
I agree not, and others in the 'Applications' list are also inappropriate ('black hole'?). Perhaps a further list of 'Phenomenon' (or similar) should be created? {The poster formerly known as 87.81.230.195} 94.1.211.243 (talk) 13:20, 6 December 2024 (UTC)Reply
That's Black-body radiation, but yeah.  Card Zero  (talk) 15:03, 6 December 2024 (UTC)Reply
That stuff was added on Feb 9, 2006,[10] by a user who's no longer active. But if their email is available, someone could try sending them a note. ←Baseball Bugs What's up, Doc? carrots17:42, 6 December 2024 (UTC)Reply

December 6

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Geodesics for Massive and Massless Particles

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In general relativity, do massive and massless particles follow the same geodesic? Why or why not? Malypaet (talk) 23:19, 6 December 2024 (UTC)Reply

According to the Einstein field equations, the worldline traced by a particle not subject to external, non-gravitational forces is a geodesic. Each particle follows its own worldline. Two particles that share their worldline are at all times at the same location and so have identical velocities.  --Lambiam 08:46, 7 December 2024 (UTC)Reply

December 7

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